So….why do Hebrews show none of the signs of being enslaved by the Egyptians? Surely the Moses story is one you believe. It is pretty much the entire biases for the Jewish faith.
Slavery always has a few things it does. Slaves aren’t allowed to speak their native language. Why? Well captors don’t understand it and it would be dangerous. They might plot an insurrection. The Hebrews were supposed to be enslaved for several generations. That would have effectively wiped out their language. Instead Hebrew is very much intact and shows little Egyptian influence
I picked out a Christian source here, so the bias would be toward Christians: http://hebrew4christians.com/Grammar/Unit_One/History/history.html That lists the history of Hebrew from a Christian perspective. They couldn’t even find enough to include Egyptian influence which ought to have been massive.
Second, art is always influenced. The slaves build things so their art gets incorporated into the projects. There are clear examples of this in Roman culture and the American south. But there is no Hebrew influence on Egyptian art. They have times that they are influenced by the Nubians, but not Hebrews.
Hebrew art also shows no Egyptian influence, so if they did by some odd chance compel it,
it doesn’t show. That’s just not how it usually works. The captors prefer the art to be good more than they care about the specifics of style. Sothe artists are generally able to use the style they are practiced at.
Finally, there is massive archeology in Egypt. The main building projects were built entirely by paid labor. There is no sign of mass slavery in Egypt at the time at all, much less Hebrew slaves. Egypt did keep slaves when they came under Roman influence. But nothing at the time matches the story. Slavery is pretty easy to read. You have chains and shackles and poor living conditions. The living quarters at the Pyramids, Valley of the Kings, and several cities have all been found. They clearly were not slaves. They mummified, had decent tombs, had decent living arrangements and food. Not only that, there are actual records of them being paid and so forth.
The Exodus never happened. It couldn’t have.
Jesus talked about it a few places
Matthew 19:7-8 KJV
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
Mark 7:10 KJV For Moses said, Honour thy father and thy mother; and, Whoso curseth father or mother, let him die the death:
In fact, a quick search of just the four Gospels turns up the name “Moses” 57 times most of which are direct quotes from Jesus. That’s pretty odd for a person who wasn’t even real. You would think the Son of God would have known that at the very least the story was horribly distorted.
How could such a basic story be so wrong?